I am well aware that correlation does not prove causation,
but,
Why do many (or most / all) multiple shootings take place in ‘gun free zones’?
It is reported that 3 teachers including a football coach were victims in the most recent event.
In addition to investigating the murderer’s history of SSRI usage,
(and the 39 recent Police responses to his home),
we need to ask if this murderer could have been deterred by the possibility of lethal defence, if at least 3 of his victims (and other properly licensed adults) could have been legally armed in that place.
We should also be mindful that the worst school mass murder in history remains the Bath School massacre of 1927, in which a long gun was present but not fired.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bath_School_disaster
As Supergrit suggests in post # 232, someone may possibly seek notoriety by setting a new record.
http://www.thedailybell.com/news-ana...ners-debunked/
Good Luck, YMMV